• IBPS Clerk Prelims analysis Dec 3 – All shifts

    Dec 3 • Uncategorized • 299 Views

    The much anticipated IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017 exam will be conducted on 2nd/3rd/9th/10th December 2017 in four shifts each day. The paper overall on dec 3rd in all shifts was of easy to moderate level. It was observed that the quant section was comparatively easier than the other sections .

     

    This analysis will give you a detailed indepth knowledge about the questions that were asked, marks distribution, good attempts and weightage given to each chapter of every section.

     

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017 Exam pattern

     

    Section No. of Qs Total Marks Shift 1

    (9 AM to 10 AM)

    Shift 2

    (11:30 AM to 12:30 PM)

    Shift 3

    (2 PM to 3 PM)

    Shift 4

    (4:30 PM to 5:30 PM)

    Level Good attempt Level Good attempt Level Good attempt  Level Good attempt
    Reasoning Ability 35 35 Easy 25-30 Easy 26-31 Easy – Moderate 24-29 Easy 26-31
    English Language 30 30 Moderate – Difficult 15-20 Moderate – Difficult 15-18 Moderate – Difficult 14-18 Moderate – Difficult 15-19
    Quantitative Aptitude 35 35 Easy – Moderate 20-25 Easy 21-25 Easy 22-26 Easy 23-27
    Total 100 100 Easy – Moderate 75-80 Easy – Moderate 74-81 Easy – Moderate 76-80 Easy – Moderate 77-83

    The IBPS Clerk preliminary exam was conducted online and had 100 questions for a cumulative time of 60 minutes. Candidates have to deal with three sections

        1. Reasoning Ability (35 Qs)

        2. Quantitative Aptitude (35 Qs)

        3. English Language (30 Qs)

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017- English Language(Moderate)

    1. Reading Comprehension – 5 Qs (Moderate)

    It was based on a story.Surprisingly,there was no question related to the vocabulary from the passage in all the shift.

    2. Error Detection– 8-10 Qs(Moderate)

    Error detection was totally of new pattern in all shifts. A part of the sentence was given in bold which was grammatically correct and you have to find out where error is present in the rest part of the sentence.

    3. Single Filler – 5-10 Qs(Moderate)

    Single filler question was asked in a new way. A single blank was given in each sentence and candidate had two such a pair of words that would both be appropriate individually for the single blank.

    4. Phrase Replacement – 5-10 Qs(Moderate)

    5. Sentence Improvement– 5 Qs(Moderate)

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017- Reasoning Ability (Easy-Moderate)

    1. Puzzles and Seating Arrangement -10-15 Qs (Moderate)

    • Linear Seating arrangement 
    • Floor based puzzle
    • Circular seating arrangement 
    • Scheduling

    2. Syllogism – 3 Qs (Easy)

    3. Inequalities– 3 Qs (Easy)

    4. Alphanumeric series – 5 Qs (Easy)

    5. Number series – 5 Qs (Easy)

    6. Blood Relation– 3 Qs(Easy)

    7. Order and Ranking – 3 Qs(Easy)

    8. Miscellaneous– 3-4 Qs(Easy)

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017- Quantitative Aptitude

    1. Data Interpretation– 5 Qs (Easy- Moderate)

    Only 1 set of DI was asked in each slot.

    2. Simplification – 10-15 Qs (Easy)

    3. Number Series– 5 Qs (Easy- Moderate)

    4. Miscellaneous- 10-15 Qs (Easy- Moderate)

    Arithmetic (Word problems) questions were asked from average, Profit & Loss, Simple Interest and Compound  Interest, Discount, Problem on Ages,Ratio and Proportion,Time and Work,Boat and Stream, etc

               ALL THE BEST FOR THE NEXT SHIFT

    For detailed analysis of IBPS PO Clerk Dec 3 – shift 4 

    For detailed analysis of IBPS PO Clerk Dec 3 – shift 3 

    For detailed analysis of IBPS PO Clerk Dec 3 – shift 2 

    For detailed analysis of IBPS PO Clerk Dec 3 – shift 1

    For detailed analysis of IBPS PO Clerk Dec 2 – shift 1 

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  • IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017 analysis Dec 3- Shift 2

    Dec 3 • Uncategorized • 319 Views

    The IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017 exam will be conducted on 2nd/3rd/9th/10th December 2017 in different shifts each day. The paper for shift 2 overall was of easy to moderate level. The prelims exam was conducted today on four different shifts.It was observed that the english section was tougher than the other sections .

     

    This analysis will give you a detailed indepth knowledge about the questions that were asked, marks distribution, good attempts and weightage given to each chapter of every section

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017 Exam pattern

     

    Section No. of Questions Maximum Marks Duration Good attempts
    Reasoning Ability 35 35 60

    minutes

    26-31
    English Language 30 30 15-18
    Quantitative Aptitude 35 35 21-25
    Total 100 100 1 hour 74-81

    The IBPS Clerk preliminary exam was conducted online and had 100 questions for a cumulative time of 60 minutes. Candidates have to deal with three sections

        1. Reasoning Ability (35 Qs)

        2. Quantitative Aptitude (35 Qs)

        3. English Language (30 Qs)

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017- English Language(Moderate)

    1. Reading Comprehension – 5 Qs (Moderate)

    It was based on a story.Surprisingly,there was no question related to the vocabulary from the passage.

    2. Error Detection– 10 Qs(Moderate)

    Error detection was totally of new pattern. A part of the sentence was given in bold which was grammatically correct and you have to find out where error is present in the rest part of the sentence.

    3. Single Filler – 5 Qs(Moderate)

    Single filler question was asked in a new pattern. A single blank was given in each sentence and candidate had two such a pair of words that would both be appropriate individually for the single blank.

    4. Phrase Replacement -5 Qs(Moderate)

    5. Sentence Improvement -5 Qs(Moderate)

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017- Reasoning Ability (Easy-Moderate)

    1. Puzzles and Seating Arrangement -10 Qs (Moderate)

    • Linear Seating arrangement 
    • Scheduling

    2. Syllogism – 3 Qs (Easy)

    3. Inequalities– 3 Qs (Easy)

    4. Alphanumeric series – 5 Qs (Easy)

    5. Number series – 5 Qs (Easy)

    6. Blood Relation– 3 Qs(Easy)

    7. Order and Ranking – 3 Qs(Easy)

    8.Miscellaneous – 3-4 Qs(Easy)

    Questions were asked from distance and direction, position of alphabet and word creation.

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017- Quantitative Aptitude

    1. Data Interpretation– 5 Qs (Easy- Moderate)

    Only 1 set of DI was asked.

    2. Simplification – 12 Qs (Easy- Moderate)

    3. Number Series (Missing)- 5 Qs (Easy- Moderate)

    4. Miscellaneous- 13 Qs(Easy- Moderate)

    Arithmetic (Word problems) questions were asked from average, Profit & Loss, Simple Interest and Compound  Interest, Discount, Problem on Ages,Ratio and Proportion,Time and Work,Boat and Stream, etc

               ALL THE BEST FOR THE NEXT SHIFT

    For detailed analysis of IBPS PO Clerk Dec 3 – shift 1

    For detailed analysis of IBPS PO Clerk Dec 2 – shift 1

    For detailed analysis of IBPS PO Mains 2017 exam

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  • IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017 analysis Dec 3- Shift 1

    Dec 3 • Uncategorized • 192 Views

    The much awaited IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017 exam will be conducted on 2nd/3rd/9th/10th December 2017 in different shifts each day. The paper overall was of easy to moderate level. The prelims exam was conducted today on four different shifts.

    This detailed analysis will give you an insight into the questions asked, marks distribution, good attempts and weightage given to each chapter of every section on Dec 3rd(shift 1).

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017 Exam pattern

    The IBPS Clerk preliminary exam was conducted online and had 100 questions for a cumulative time of 60 minutes. Candidates have to deal with three sections

        1. Reasoning Ability (35 Qs)

        2. Quantitative Aptitude (35 Qs)

        3. English Language (30 Qs)

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017- English Language(Moderate)

    1. Reading Comprehension – 5 Qs (Moderate)

    It was based on the impact of pollution in the ocean and on the aquatic animals.Surprisingly,there was no question related to the vocabulary from the passage.

    2. Error Detection– 8 Qs(Moderate)

    Error detection was totally of new pattern. A part of the sentence was given in bold which was grammatically correct and you have to find out where error is present in the rest part of the sentence.

    3. Single Filler – 5 Qs(Moderate)

    Single filler question was asked in a new way. A single blank was given in each sentence and candidate had two such a pair of words that would both be appropriate individually for the single blank.

    4. Idioms and Phrase Replacement – 12 Qs(Moderate)

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017- Reasoning Ability (Easy-Moderate)

    1. Puzzles and Seating Arrangement -15 Qs (Moderate)

    • Linear arrangement question 
    • Scheduling
    • Circular arrangement 

    2. Syllogism – 3 Qs (Easy)

    3. Inequalities– 3 Qs (Easy)

    4. Alphanumeric series – 5 Qs (Easy)

    5. Number series – 5 Qs (Easy) (A group of 5 numbers with 3 digits)

    6. Distance & Direction– 2 Qs (Easy to Moderate)

    7. Coding Decoding -2 Qs (Easy to Moderate)

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017- Quantitative Aptitude

    1. Data Interpretation– 5 Qs (Moderate)

    2. Simplification – 15 Qs (Easy)

    3. Number Series (Missing)- 5 Qs (Easy- Moderate)

    4. Miscellaneous- 10 Qs(Easy- Moderate)

    Questions were asked from average, Profit & Loss, Simple Interest and Compound  Interest, Discount, Problem on Ages,Ratio and Proportion,Time and Work,Boat and Stream, etc

               WISHING YOU ALL THE LUCK FOR THE NEXT SHIFT

    For detailed analysis of IBPS PO Clerk Dec 2 – shift 1

    For detailed analysis of IBPS PO Mains 2017 exam

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  • IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017 analysis Dec 2- Shift 1

    Dec 2 • Uncategorized • 518 Views

    The much awaited IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017 exam will be conducted on 2nd/3rd/9th/10th December 2017 in different shifts each day. The paper overall was of easy to moderate level. The prelims exam was conducted today on four different shifts.

     

    This detailed analysis will give you an insight into the questions asked, marks distribution, good attempts and weightage given to each chapter of every section.

     

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017 Exam pattern

    The IBPS Clerk preliminary exam was conducted online and had 100 questions for a cumulative time of 60 minutes. Candidates have to deal with three sections

        1. Reasoning Ability (35 Qs)

        2. Quantitative Aptitude (35 Qs)

        3. English Language (30 Qs)

     

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017- English Language(Moderate)

    1. Reading Comprehension – 5 Qs (Moderate)

    It was based on a story.Surprisingly,there was no question related to the vocabulary from the passage.

    2. Error Detection– 10 Qs(Moderate)

    Error detection was totally of new pattern. A part of the sentence was given in bold which was grammatically correct and you have to find out where error is present in the rest part of the sentence.

    3. Single Filler – 5 Qs(Moderate)

    Single filler question was asked in a new way. A single blank was given in each sentence and candidate had two such a pair of words that would both be appropriate individually for the single blank.

    4. Phrase Replacement – 10 Qs(Moderate)

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017- Reasoning Ability (Easy-Moderate)

    1. Puzzles and Seating Arrangement -15 Qs (Moderate)

    • Linear arrangement question (seated in a single line with North-South direction)
    • Floor based puzzle (8 floors)
    • Circular arrangement facing towards the center.

    2. Syllogism – 3 Qs (Easy)

    3. Inequalities– 3 Qs (Easy)

    4. Alphanumeric series – 5 Qs (Easy)

    5. Alphabet series – 5 Qs (Easy)

    6. Miscellaneous– 4 Qs(Easy)

     

    IBPS Clerk Prelims 2017- Quantitative Aptitude

    1. Data Interpretation– 5 Qs (Easy- Moderate)

    Only 1 set of DI was asked.

    2. Simplification – 15 Qs (Easy)

    3. Number Series (Missing)- 5 Qs (Easy- Moderate)

    4. Miscellaneous- 10 Qs(Easy- Moderate)

    Arithmetic (Word problems) questions were asked from average, Profit & Loss, Simple Interest and Compound  Interest, Discount, Problem on Ages,Ratio and Proportion,Time and Work,Boat and Stream, etc

     

               ALL THE BEST FOR THE NEXT SHIFT

    For detailed analysis of IBPS PO Clerk Dec 3 – shift 1

    For detailed analysis of IBPS PO Mains 2017 exam

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  • IBPS PO MAINS 2017 Detailed Analysis

    Dec 1 • Uncategorized • 249 Views

    The IBPS PO mains 2017 exam was conducted on 26th November 2017. The paper (as expected) was of quite difficult level. The questions were of similar pattern to the ones in IBPS mains exam 2016 and SBI PO mains 2017. However, few new questions were incorporated as well. 155 questions carrying a total mark of 200 with a total time of 3 hours were asked from the four sections in the objective test. Although computer aptitude was merged with Reasoning ability section, it was quite surprising to see that there were no questions from the computer section.

    This detailed analysis will give you an insight into questions asked, marks distribution, good attempts and weightage given to each chapter of every section.

     

    IBPS PO MAINS 2017 Exam analysis

     

    Type of Exam Section No. of Question Maximum Marks Duration Level of Difficulty Good attempts
    Objective Test Reasoning  Section 45 60 60 minutes Difficult 15-18
    General Awareness 40 40 35 minutes Moderate 24-27
    English Language 35 40 40 minutes Difficult 11-15
    Data Analysis & Interpretation 35 60 45 minutes Moderate- Difficult 15-18
    Total 155 200 3 hour Difficult 74-80
    Descriptive Test Letter Writing & Essay 2 25 30 minutes Moderate

     

    Now, let us go through the detailed analysis of each section. The sections are given in the same order as asked in the exam.

    1. Reasoning and Computer aptitude

    This section was particularly very tough. The questions were very tricky and time consuming. ’Can’t be determined’ option was given in most of the questions, which added to the difficulty level of the questions. The puzzles were very tough to crack and there was only 2-3 questions from each set. No questions were asked from the computer section.

    Let us go through the type of questions that were asked in this section

    a) Seating Arrangement and Puzzles– 15 Qs (Difficult)

    The questions asked were very tricky and difficult. The questions that were asked were

    • Circular arrangement where more than 10 Persons were sitting around a circle, all of them facing towards the center.
    • Linear Arrangement where 3 People are sitting in 2 rows each and directions i.e. north/south was not defined for any particular row) with 2 Variables.
    • Small-Para Puzzles that was very tricky
    • Box puzzle where figure was given

    b) Logical Reasoning – 10 Qs (Difficult)

    Questions were asked from statement and argument, course of action, cause and effect and conclusion/inference. Logical reasoning questions were of very difficult level

    c) Coded Blood Relation- 3-4 Qs (Difficult)

    d) Coded Direction Sense – 5 Qs (Difficult)

    e) Machine Input Output – 5 Qs (Difficult)-Combination of numbers and words

    f) Data Sufficiency – 2-3 Qs  (Moderate to Difficult)

     

    2. General Economy and Banking Awareness (Moderate)

    Overall this section was of Moderate level. In this section more questions  from banking awareness was asked in comparison to current affair . The questions from current affair were from last 2-3 month only. There were around 3-4 questions from Budget and 3-4 questions from static awareness.

    3. English Language (Difficult)

    This section was totally a surprise package. A lot of change in pattern was observed. Also to add to the level of difficulty, the None of these option was present in almost all the questions in this section.

    • Reading Comprehension – 10 Qs (2 set consisting of 5 Qs each) – Difficult- One was based on “China’s Environment Activism”.
    • Cloze Test – 5-7 Qs – (Moderate to Difficult). The cloze test questions had two possible answer against a single blank and both the word of the same option had to fit in the given blank.
    • Error Spotting – 5 Qs – (Moderate to Difficult): The bold part highlighted in the sentence was grammatically correct and you have to identify the incorrect part in the rest of the sentence.
    • Connector words – 2 Qs – (Difficult): 1 connecting word(while/when) and five sentences were given. You have to identify the combination of sentences that can be connected using the given connecting words.
    • Double Filler – 3-4 Qs – (Moderate)
    • Para Jumble – 3 Qs – (Difficult)
    • Word Pair Association – 4 Qs – (Moderate to Difficult) Pairs of words were given in options and one had to identify if the words were Synonyms/ Antonyms of each other.

    4. Data Analysis and Interpretation ( Moderate-Difficult )

    This section was not very tough yet it  was calculative & based on concepts. The questions could not be solved with tricks.

    a) Data Interpretation – 15 Qs – Difficult & calculative

                 i) Tabular Graph

                ii) Missing Tabular + Bar Graph( which was also clubbed with profit & loss/Discount)

                iii)Data Caselet

    b) Data Sufficiency – 5 Qs (Difficult)

    c) Wrong Number Series – 5 Qs (Moderate to Difficult)

    d) Inequality – 5 Qs (Difficult)-Based on Quantity 1 & Quantity 2 and among 5 questions  2 were based on diagrams

    e) Miscellaneous – 5 Qs – Moderate to Difficult

    Descriptive Paper:

    Descriptive paper was for 25 marks with a time duration of 30 minutes. 3 Essays and 3 Letter Writing Topics were given from which a candidate had to choose one from each.

     

    Essay on:

    1. What reforms can be made in Indian education to be at par with International level
    2. Advantages and Disadvantages of Cashless payment methods
    3. Effects of gadets on intellectual capabilities of humans

     

    Letter Writing on:

    1. Write a Letter to you friend to choose his career between quit well paid job and independent business.
    2. You have been observing that your subordinates are not working properly. Write a letter to the HR department about the same.
    3. Write a letter to the branch manager requesting him to block your credit card as you’ve lost it and ask him to issue you a new card.

     

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  • Reasoning questions asked in SBI PO Mains 2017

    Nov 22 • Uncategorized • 524 Views

    Q1.All the members of the Student Rights Coalition signed the petition calling for a meeting with the university trustees. Philip must be a member of the Student Rights Coalition since his signature appears on the petition. Which of the following best states the central flaw in the reasoning above?(BOB PO 2016)

    (a) Some members of the Student Rights Coalition may not support all of the organization’s positions.

    (b) It is possible that Philip’s signature on the petition was forged by a member of the Student Rights Coalition.

    (c) Any member of the student body is eligible to sign a petition dealing with university affairs.

    (d) Philip may have resigned from the Student Rights Coalition after signing the petition.

    (e) Some of those who signed the petition may not be members of the Student Rights Coalition.

     

    Q2. Directions (2-3): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow: The Budget session began on a stormy note as opposition members demanding a debate on the recent hate crimes against Indians living in the USA. Congress blamed the Modi government for remaining silent on the attacks against Indians in US. In his reply, Union Home Minister said that the government has taken a serious note and PM will reply in next week of Parliament session. In recent weeks, at least two Indians have been killed in incidents of hate crime in the US. “Each attack involved a slogan. Go back to your country”. America condemned it but is not taking any steps to address the issue.                                                                (SBI PO MAINS 2017)

     

    Q2. What may be the repercussions after recent attacks on Indians in US?

    (I) There may be impact on Indian-US trade policy.

    (II) Indian Government will coerce US Government.

    (III) American Govt. will give life imprisonment to accused to make a set mark that America is against racism.

    (a) Only I

    (b) Only I and III

    (c) Only III

    (d) Only I and II

    (e) None of these

     

    Q3. Which of the following substantiates the laxity of Indian-American Govt.? (SBI PO MAINS 2017)

    (I) Modi govt. has taken a serious note and ready to reply in next week of parliament session.

    (II) Condemning the attack but not taking any steps by American Govt.

    (III) Still there is no action as racism slogan “Go back to your country” is spreading.

    Options:

    (a) Only III

    (b) Only I and II

    (c) All of three

    (d) Only II

    (e) None of these

     

    Q4. During the SARS days, about 23,500 doctors who had treated SARS sufferers died and about 23,670 doctors who had not engaged in treatment for SARS sufferers died. On the basis of those figures, it can be concluded that it was not much more dangerous to participate in SARS treatment during the SARS day than it was not to participate in SARS treatment.                                                          (SBI PO MAINS 2017)

     

    Which of the following would reveal most clearly the absurdity of the conclusion drawn above?

    (a) Counting deaths among doctors who had participated in SARS treatment in addition to addition to deaths among doctors who had not participated is SARS treatment

    (b) Expressing the difference between the numbers of deaths among doctors who had treated SARS sufferers and doctors who had not treated SARS suffers as a percentage of the total number of deaths

    (c) Separating deaths caused by accidents during the treatment to SARS suffers from deaths caused by infect of SARS suffers

    (d) Comparing death rates per thousand members of each group rather than comparing total numbers of deaths

    (e) None of the above

    Directions (5-7): Study the information carefully answers the questions given below.

    @ means either hour hand or minute hand is at 8

    # means either hour hand or minute hand is at 5

    $ means either hour hand or minute hand is at 4

    % means either hour hand or minute hand is at 12

    & means either hour hand or minute hand is at 2

    £ means either hour hand or minute hand is at 3

    Note: if two symbols are given than by default first symbol is consider as hour hand and second one is consider as minute hand. And all time are consider at PM.           (SBI PO MAINS 2017)                            

           

    Q5. If A takes 25 min to reach railway station and his train is scheduled at #& then at what time should he leave to reach the station 5 minute earlier?

    (a) $% (b) $& (c) &S (d) $@ (e) £$

     

    Q6. If a train departed from a station at &£ and it takes 2 hours to reach the destination then when it will reach to the destination?

    (a) $£ (b) $% (c) #$ (d) $# (e) £$

     

    Q7. A person has to catch a train that is scheduled to depart at ‘@%’. It takes the person 4 hours and 15 minutes to reach the railway station from his home. At what time should he leave from his home for the railway station to arrive at the station at least 25 minutes before the departure of the train?

    (a) %@ (b) £$ (c) %+ (d) +@ (e) None of these

     

    ANSWERS

    1. (e); In the above question it is asked to choose from a given option which weaken the statement or make it imperfect so correct answer will be (e).

    2. Ans.(d) Sol. As stated in statement America is not taking any steps to address the issue, so to calm down the situation Indian Govt. may pressurize American Govt. or they may be impact on Indian-US trade. And as stated in statement America is not taking any action despite of racism attack on Indians which results death of two citizens. So it cannot be assumed that American Govt. will give life imprisonment according to the statement.

    3. Ans.(c) Sol. All of three supports the negligence of Indian-American Govt. as Modi Govt. denies replying in same week after racial attack. American Govt. is not ready tackle the issue despite of environment of racism is spreading.

    4.Ans.(d) Sol. Most logically such comparison should reveal mortality rate per thousand doctors indulged in SARS treatment and not indulged in treatment.so statement (d) is the correct option.

    5. Ans.(d) Sol. train is scheduled at= 5 hour 10 minute = #& Time should he leave to reach the station 5 minute earlier= 5 hour 10 minute-(25+5) minute= 4 hour 40 minute

    6. Ans.(a) Sol. 4 hour 15 minute

    7. Ans.(b) Sol. Scheduled time of departure of train= @%= 8:00 PM Time for travel+ early arrival= 4 hour 15 minutes + 25 minutes = 4 hour 40 minutes 8:00 PM- 4 hour 40 minutes= 3:20 PM= £$

     

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  • Statement and argument questions asked in previous years(IBPS PO/SBI PO/BOB)

    Nov 17 • Uncategorized • 381 Views

    1. It is not often that professional footballers retire from internationals at the peak of their game. When the 29-year-old Lionel Messi, widely reckoned to be the most skilled footballer today, announced after the 2016 Copa America Final against Chile that he would not wear the Argentinian shirt again, he took everyone by surprise. It is not clear if he has made the retirement call in the heat of the moment. It came after Messi failed, yet again, to win a major title with the Argentinian team; he also missed a crucial penalty in the shootout against Chile after efficient but goal-less play in regulation and extra time. In fact, Messi’s overall international record with Argentina has been good, if not spectacular. With him, the team has reached the finals of four important tournaments: the World Cup in 2014 and the Copa America in 2007, 2015 and 2016.

    According to the given question, you have to decide which of the statement is/are strong on the basis of the given passage:-

    After defeating in Copa America Final, Should Messi continues his international career for two years more? (IBPS PO MAINS 2016)

    I. Yes, because it is the only way he can prove himself to the world as a challenging person.

    II. No, It is his personal decision to play no more for Argentina and as a player he gave a lot of contribution to his nation. So we should respect his decision.

    III. No, because Messi’s record as a player of Barcelona is quite better than as a player of Argentina. So he should focus on one side rather than playing for both of them.

    (a)Only II & III are strong

    (b) Only I & III are strong

    (c) Only II is strong

    (d) Only III is strong

    (e) None is strong

    2. The mushrooming of business schools in the country is a cause for shortage of faculty with Ph.D qualification. In addition, the higher pay and generous fringe benefits given by industry has encouraged qualified people to not seek academic positions. Which of the following statements, if true, would tend to STRENGTHEN the argument?  (SBI PO MAINS 2017)

    (a) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is more than the average salary for faculty positions in some business schools in Ahmedabad by around 30%

    (b) The average salary for industry positions in Gujarat is less than the average salary for faculty positions in a top business school in Ahmedabad by around 30%

    (c) The average salary for recent Ph.D graduates in the industry is 20% higher than that in academics

    (d) The rate of growth of salaries for the industry positions is equal to the rate of growth of salaries for academic positions for the past three years

    (e) None of the above

    3. The rate of violent crime in this state is increased up to 30% from last year. The fault lies entirely in our system of justice. Recently our judge’s sentences have been so lenient that criminals can now do almost anything without fear of a long prison term. (SBI PO MAINS 2017)

    The argument above would be weakened if it were true that

    (a) 85% of the other States in the nation have lower crime rates than does this state

    (b) White-collar crime in this state has also increased by over 25% in the last year

    (c) 35% of the police in this state have been laid off in the last year due to budget cuts

    (d) Polls show that 65% of the population in this state opposes capital punishment

    (e) None of the above

    4. Landmark preservation laws unfairly impinge on the freedom of owners to develop their own property as they see fit. In some cases, owners of hotels and office buildings designated as landmarks have been forbidden to make changes in the original facades or interiors, even though they reasonably believe that the changes would enhance the structures and make them more valuable. Which of the following statements, if true, seriously weakens the author’s argument? (BOB PO 2016)

    (a) Altering the appearance of a historic structure sometimes does not enhance its beauty or value.

    (b) In traditional legal doctrine, ownership of a property implies the right to alter it at will.

    (c) Only buildings over 75 years old are normally affected by landmark preservation laws.

    (d) Landmark designations must be approved by a local regulatory body before taking effect.

    (e) Historic buildings represent a cultural heritage which the community has a legitimate stake in preserving.

    5. The percentage of family income spent on entertainment has remained almost the same over the past twenty years – about twelve per cent. When new forms of entertainment become popular, they do not expand this percentage; instead, they take consumer spending away from other forms of entertainment. Therefore, film producers have observed the video boom with concern, knowing that every dollar spent on rental of videos means a dollar less spent on movie theatre admissions. Which of the following, if true, most forcefully undermines the argument of the passage above? (BOB PO 2016)

    (a) The cost of renting a video is generally substantially less than the price of a movie theatre admission.

    (b) Most film producers receive a portion of the income from the sale of video rights to their movies.

    (c) Fears of some film producers that videos would completely supersede movies have not come to pass.

    (d) Since the start of the video boom, money spent on forms of entertainment other than videos and movies has dropped.

    (e) Some movies that were unprofitable when shown in theatres have become successful when released in video form.

    SOLUTIONS:

    1.(c);

    Only II is strong argument because it clearly explains the freedom which is given to a person to take decisions about his life. So it gives a valid reason.

    Argument I is a weak statement because of the ‘only’ word used in the statement. Messi can prove himself by all other ways also.

    Argument III is also a weak Statement because there is a comparison between the position of Messi as a player of Argentina and the position of Messi as a player of Barcelona club.

    2. Ans.(a)

    Statement (a) is the correct option because it clearly strengthen the argument that persons with sufficient qualification prefer to go to industrial field rather than to go in academics as a faculty in business schools.

    3. Ans.(c)

    Statement (c) is the correct option because according to this, the increase in crime rate has been contributed by other factors, not leniency in the punishment.so it weakens the given passage.

    4.  (e);

    The conclusion of the argument is that landmark preservation laws deprive landlords of their right to use their own property. (e) comes to grips with this assumption by nothing that a landmark building may not be purely private property and some part of building may belong to the community at large. (a) does not valid as it represents only a partial attack on argument.(b) strengthens the claims that landmark preservation laws represent an unwanted interference with the rights of the landlord.

    5. (d);

    The author argues for the following connection: videos take money away from movies. What choices (d) asserts, in effect, is that the money spent on videos came from some other source.so,(d) statement undermines the given passage

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  • Statement and assumption questions asked in previous years(IBPS PO/SBI PO)

    Nov 16 • Uncategorized • 523 Views

    1. Statement:- By asking five prominent hospitals in the national capital to deposit nearly Rs. 600 crore to compensate for their failure to treat poor patients, the Delhi government has drawn attention to the social obligation of healthcare providers in the corporate sector as well as the need for timely enforcement of applicable regulations. According to the Delhi government, trusts and registered societies to which public land was allotted to establish hospitals were required to earmark a percentage of their medical facilities and services for indigent patients. (IBPS PO MAINS 2016)

    Assumptions:

    I. This strengthens the case for private hospitals to dedicate a part of their services to those who cannot afford treatment.

    II.Social responsibility of hospitals must be monitored and central government should ensure compliance by the corporate hospitals.

    III. There is a great need for the government to monitor and enforce “health services” so that the poor who cannot afford modern health facilities that are extremely costly- are able to be benefited.

    (a) All are implicit

    (b) Only III is implicit

    (c) Only I and III are implicit

    (d) Only I and II are implicit

    (e) None is implicit

    2. The ancient Nubians inhabited an area in which typhus occurs, yet surprisingly few of their skeletons show the usual evidence of this disease. The skeletons do show deposits of tetracycline, an antibiotic produced by a bacterium common in Nubian soil. This bacterium can flourish on the dried grain used for makin g two staples of Nubian diet, beer and bread. Thus, tetracycline in their food probably explains the low incidence of typhus among ancient Nubians.  (IBPS PO MAINS 2016)

    Which of the following is an assumption that can be drawn from the passage?

    I. Infectious diseases other than typhus to which the ancient Nubians were exposed are unaffected by tetracycline.

    II. Tetracycline is not rendered ineffective as an antibiotic by exposure to the process involved in making bread and beer.

    III. Typhus cannot be transmitted by ingesting bread or beer contaminated with the infectious agents of this disease.

    IV. Bread and beer were the only items in the diet of the ancients Nubians which could have contained tetracycline.

    V. Typhus is generally fatal.

    (a) Only II follows

    (b) Only III & V follow

    (c) Only III follows

    (d) Only II,III,IV and V follow

    (e) None of these

    3. The Government has appealed to all citizens to use potable water judiciously as there is an acute shortage in supply. Excessive use may lead to huge scarcity in future months. Which of the assumptions is implicit in the above statement? An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted) (SBI PO MAINS 2017)

    (a)People may ignore the appeal and continue using water as per their consideration

    (b)Government may be able to tap those who do not respond to the appeal

    (c)Government may be able to put in place alternate sources of water in the event of a crisis situation

    (d)Large number of people may positively respond to the Government’s appeal and help tide over the crisis

    (e)Only poor are going to suffer from this shortage of water supply

    4. Statement: Science is a sort of news agency comparable in principle to other news agencies. But this news agency gives us information which is reliable to an extraordinary high degree due to elaborate techniques of verification and its capacity to survive centuries. So, science should be read with as much interest as we read news.  (SBI PO MAINS 2017)

    Assumptions:

    I. Science encourages investigative spirit.

    II.People read news out of interest.

    (a) If only assumption I is implicit

    (b) If only assumption II is implicit

    (c) If either I or II is implicit

    (d) If neither I nor II is implicit

    (e) Both I and II are implicit

    5. Twenty percent of all energy consumed in the country is consumed by home appliances. If appliances that are twice as energy-efficient as those currently available are manufactured, this figure will eventually be reduced to about ten percent.(IBPS PO MAINS 2016)

    The argument above requires which of the following assumptions?

    (a) Home-appliance usage would not increase along with the energy efficiency of the appliances.

    (b) It would not be expensive to manufacture home appliances that are energy-efficient.

    (c) Home-appliance manufacturers now have the technology to produce appliances that are twice as energy-efficient as those currently available.

    (d) The cost of energy to the consumer would rise with increases in the energy efficiency of home appliances.

    (e) None of these

    SOLUTION:

    1. (c);Such strict actions of Delhi government made private hospitals to serve their services to poor people. So I is implicit. But nothing is mentioned about central government in the statement II also it is a course of action, So, II is not implicit. According to statement Delhi Govt. wanted to provide medical facilities for indigent patients. So we can assume that there is need for the govt. to monitor and enforce health services to the needy person.

    2. (a);Statement II is a valid assumption as tetracycline is produced by a bacterium which is found in Nubian soil and the bacterium can develop on the grain which is used in making bread & beer.so tetracycline is formed through the process of making of bread & beer. Statement I is not valid because nothing is said in the passage about the disease other than typhus. Statement III is also not valid because Typhus is a disease and the statement talks about the contamination of a disease by another disease which is wrong in the context of this passage. Statement IV & V is invalid as No information is given in the passage that bread & beer were their only items in the diet and also about Typhus is fatal.

    3. Ans.(d) Sol. Option (d) is an assumption. Any appeal has some effects and people generally respond positively to any appeal.

    4. Ans.(d) Sol. Both I and II can’t be assumed from the given statement as statement I is vague and II statement is also not implicit because it is not clear from the given statement that whether people are interested in such news or not.

    5. Sol: 1. (a) This argument is based on the assumption that if the appliances become more efficient, then more homes would not be tempted to increase their utility/consumption in the household.

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  • Data sufficiency questions asked in previous years

    Nov 15 • Uncategorized • 304 Views

    Directions (1-2): In each of the following questions, a question is followed by three statements numbered I, II and III. Read all the statements to find the answer to given question and then answer accordingly that which statement/s can give the answer alone/together.  (SBI PO MAINS 2017)

              Q1. What is the direction of point U with respect to point X?

              Statement I: Point R is 7 m to the North of point Q. Point P is 8 m to the West of point Q. Point R is 6 m to the West of point U.

              Statement II: Point B is 9 m to the North of point A. Point P is 5 m to the North of point Z. Point Z is 4 m to the West of point A.

              Statement III: Point C is 7 m to the East of point A. Point X is 2 m to the East of point F. Point F is 3 m to the North of point C

              (a) Both I and III

             (b) Both II and III

             (c) All I, II and III

            (d) II and either I or III

            (e) Even I, II and III together are also not sufficient

           Q2. What does the code ‘bp’ stand for in the given code language? (SBI PO MAINS 2017)

    Statement I: In the language, ‘black white red’ is coded as ‘df dc or’ and ‘green blue grey’ is coded as ‘st hn wo’

    Statement II: In the language, ‘blue pink brown’ is coded as ‘er bp hn’ and ‘pink blue white’ is coded as ‘hn or bp’

    Statement III: In the language, ‘green violet orange’ is coded as ‘pa wo kl’ and ‘yellow pink brown’ is coded as ‘bp bi er’

    (a) Both II and III

    (b) I and either II or III

    (c) II and either I or III

    (d) Both I and III

    (e) All I, II and III

    Directions(3-7) – Each of the following questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Give Answer (IBPS CLERK MAINS 2016)

    a) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question

    b) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question,while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question

    c) If the data either in Statement I alone or Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

    d) If the data in both the Statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question

    e) If the data in both the Statement I and II are together necessary to answer the question

           3. What is the difference in the age of Paarth and Keshav?

    I. Paarth is 20 years older than Mohan

    II. Mohan is 2 years younger than Zorawar

    4. The sum of ages of Manak, Neesha and Opendar is 50 years. What is Neesha’s age?

    I. Neesha is 10 year older than Manak

    II. Opendar is 30 year old

           5. How many students are there in the class?

    I. There are more than 20 but less than that 27 students in the class.

    II. There are more than 24 but less than 31 students in the class. The number of students in the class can be divided into groups such that each group contains 5 students.

    6. Among five friends – Jatin, Kalu, Lucky, Manish and Naresh each of a different height, who is the second tallest?

    I. Naresh is taller than Manish and Kalu. Kalu is shorter than Manish.

    II. Lucky is taller than Naresh. Jatin is not the tallest.

    7. How is ‘call’ written in a code language?

    I. ‘call me back’ is written as ‘531’ in that code language.

    II. ‘you can call me any time’ is written as ‘94163’ in that code language

    Direction (8-12): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer. a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question. b) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question. c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. d) If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.(BOB 2016)

            8. There are six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U sitting around a table. Who is on the immediate right of T?

    I. Only U is sitting between T and P.

    II. P is third to the right of S.

    9. What is the shortest distance between two points `A’ and `B’? 

    I. ‘A’ is 15 km North from another point ‘ P’, which is to the East of ‘B’ at a distance of 22 km.

    II. point ‘X’ is to the West of ‘B’ at a distance of 5.6 km and to the North of ‘A’ at a distance of 6.5 km.

           10. Who is Kavita’s sister?

    I. Sapna is the granddaughter of Amit, who is the father of Kavita’s father.

    II. The name of Kavita’s sister starts with the letter ‘S’.

    11. Who among the five friends Sumit, Tare, Mukesh, Vikrant and Basuki is the youngest?

    I. Basuki is older than three of them but Sumit is younger than Mukesh.

    II. Tare is older than Vikrant and Basuki.

    12. What is the code for ‘book’ in a code language?

    I. In that language `pik tik rik’means ‘I like reading’ and ‘mik nek bek fek’ means ‘this book is interesting’.

    II. In the same language ‘pik tik mik rik’means ‘I like reading book’ and ‘mik juk pan’ means ‘you write book’.

    Solutions:

    1. (c) All I, II and III

    2. (c) II and either I or III

    3. (d)Relation between Paarth and Keshav can not be established with the help of both Statements I and II. So, both the statements are not sufficient to answer the question.

    4. (e)

    5. (e) From Statement I Number of Students in class = 21 or 22 or 23 or 24 or 25 or 26 From Statement II Number of Students in class = 25 or 26 or 27 or 28 or 29 or 30 Since, number of students can be divided into groups of 5 students, therefore number of students must be multiple of 5. Number of students in the class = 25 or 30 On combining Statements I and II Number of students in the class = 25 Hence, the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

    6. (d)From Statement I: Naresh > Manish > Kalu
    From Statement II: Lucky > Naresh
    Hence from both the Statements
    Lucky > Naresh > Manish > Kalu
    But height of Jatin is not clear.
    Thus, second tallest friend can’t be determined.
    Hence, data neither in Statement I nor in Statement II are sufficient to answer the question.

    7. (d) Both the statements are not sufficient.

    8. (d) Data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the questions.

    9. (c) Data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

    10. (d) From statement I and II together still it is still not clear who is Kavita’s sister. It is not sure whether Sapna is sister or cousin of Kavita.

    11. (d) From I and II : – Still we do not know who is the youngest.

    12. (b) From II. we get code for book is “mik”.

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  • Puzzles asked in Previous years (IBPS CLERK/IBPS PO/BOB)

    Nov 15 • Uncategorized • 674 Views

    Directions (1-5): Seven persons namely Paramjit, Tarun, Morya, Jeeva, Vaani, Ram and Waqar are good friends and are studying in M.Com, M.A. and M.Sc courses. Three are doing M.Com, two are in M.A. and another two are in M.Sc. Each of them has a very distinct and favorite color choice ranging from blue, red, yellow, white, black, pink and brown but not necessarily in the same order. None doing M.Com like either red or black. Morya is doing M.A. and he likes blue. Ram is doing M.Sc and likes brown. Jeeva is doing M.Com and likes yellow. Paramjit who does not like red is in the same discipline of Ram. Tarun is in the same discipline of Morya. Vaani does not like pink. (IBPS CLERK MAINS 2016)

                1. Which among the following groups is doing M. Com

    a) Jeeva, Vaani and Waqar

                       b) Vaani, Waqar and Tarun

                       c) Jeeva, Vaani and Tarun

                      d) Jeeva, Paramjit and Ram

    2.What is the color combination choice of those who are in M.Sc discipline?

                       a) Brown and Pink

                      b) Black and White

                       c) Black and Brown

                       d) Yellow and Black

                       e) None of The Above

                 3.Which color does Vaani like?

                       a) Yellow b) Pink c) White d) Brown e) None of The Above

                4.What is the color combination choice of those who are in M.A. discipline?

                       a) Red and Black

                       b) Blue and Red

                       c) Blue and Black

                      d) None of The Above

    5.Morya is related with which discipline?

                       a) M.Sc. b) M.A. c) M.Com d) M.BA e) None of these

    Directions (6-8): Read the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
    There are six persons S, T, U, V, W and X, who got different marks in the examination. S got more marks than only U and
    X. T got less marks than W, who did not get the highest marks in the examination. The Second highest person got 92
    marks. (IBPS PO 2017)
    6. How many persons got more marks than U?
    (a) Four     (b) Two     (c) Five    (d) Can’t be determined   (e) One
    7. If S got 69 marks and U got 68 marks, then which of the following statement is true?
    (a) X got the lower marks.
    (b) U got the fifth highest marks.
    (c) Five persons got more marks than X
    (d) All are true
    (e) X got 66 marks is a possibility.
    8. V got which of the following possible score?
    (a) 85   (b) 66   (c) 92   (d) 89   (e) 94

    Directions (9-11): Study the following information to answer the questions. Each of the six buildings – E, F, G H, I and J has different number of floors. Only three buildings have more number of floors then J. G has more number of floors than I but less than E. I has more number of floors than J. F does not have the least number of floors. The building having least number of floors has 5 floors. The building having third highest number of floors has 26 floors. F has 14 floors less than the number of floors in I. (BOB 2016)

              9.If the number of floors of a building is less than 38 and is an odd number which is divisible by 3 but not 7. How many floors does G have?

                      (a) 15 (b) 35 (c) 9 (d) 27 (e) 29

     

              10.Which of the following buildings has the second highest number of floors?

                        (a) I (b) F (c) J (d) H (e) G

              11.How many floors does building J possibly have?

                         (a) 22 (b) 5 (c) 11 (d) 35 (e) 12

     

     

    Solutions:

    1. a) Jeeva, Vaani and Waqar
    2. c) Black and Brown
    3. c) White
    4. b) Blue and Red
    5. b) M.A.
    6. (d) Can’t be determined(V>W>T>S>U/X>X/U)
    7. (d) All are true
    8. (e) 94
    9. (d)
    10. (e)
    11. (a)

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